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CompTIA SecurityX Certification Exam Sample Questions (Q189-Q194):
NEW QUESTION # 189
An organization has been using self-managed encryption keys rather than the free keys managed by the cloud provider. The Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) reviews the monthly bill and realizes the self-managed keys are more costly than anticipated. Which of the following should the CISO recommend to reduce costs while maintaining a strong security posture?
- A. Utilize an on-premises HSM to locally manage keys.
- B. Begin using cloud-managed keys on all new resources deployed in the cloud.
- C. Adjust the configuration for cloud provider keys on data that is classified as public.
- D. Extend the key rotation period to one year so that the cloud provider can use cached keys.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Step by Step
Understanding the Scenario: The organization is using customer-managed encryption keys in the cloud, which is more expensive than using the cloud provider's free managed keys. The CISO needs to find a way to reduce costs without significantly weakening the security posture.
Analyzing the Answer Choices:
A . Utilize an on-premises HSM to locally manage keys: While on-premises HSMs offer strong security, they introduce additional costs and complexity (procurement, maintenance, etc.). This option is unlikely to reduce costs compared to cloud-based key management.
B . Adjust the configuration for cloud provider keys on data that is classified as public: This is the most practical and cost-effective approach. Data classified as public doesn't require the same level of protection as sensitive data. Using the cloud provider's free managed keys for public data can significantly reduce costs without compromising security, as the data is intended to be publicly accessible anyway.
Reference:
C . Begin using cloud-managed keys on all new resources deployed in the cloud: While this would reduce costs, it's a broad approach that doesn't consider the sensitivity of the data. Applying cloud-managed keys to sensitive data might not be acceptable from a security standpoint.
D . Extend the key rotation period to one year so that the cloud provider can use cached keys: Extending the key rotation period weakens security. Frequent key rotation is a security best practice to limit the impact of a potential key compromise.
Why B is the Correct answer:
Risk-Based Approach: Using cloud-provider-managed keys for public data is a reasonable risk-based decision. Public data, by definition, is not confidential.
Cost Optimization: This directly addresses the CISO's concern about cost, as cloud-provider-managed keys are often free or significantly cheaper.
Security Balance: It maintains a strong security posture for sensitive data by continuing to use customer-managed keys where appropriate, while optimizing costs for less sensitive data.
CASP+ Relevance: This approach demonstrates an understanding of risk management, data classification, and cost-benefit analysis in security decision-making, all of which are important topics in CASP+.
Elaboration on Data Classification:
Data Classification Policy: Organizations should have a clear data classification policy that defines different levels of data sensitivity (e.g., public, internal, confidential, restricted).
Security Controls Based on Classification: Security controls, including encryption key management, should be applied based on the data's classification level.
Cost-Benefit Analysis: Data classification helps organizations make informed decisions about where to invest in stronger security controls and where cost optimization is acceptable.
In conclusion, adjusting the configuration to use cloud-provider-managed keys for data classified as public is the most effective way to reduce costs while maintaining a strong security posture. It's a practical, risk-based approach that aligns with data classification principles and cost-benefit considerations, all of which are important concepts covered in the CASP+ exam objectives.
NEW QUESTION # 190
A vulnerability can on a web server identified the following:
Which of the following actions would most likely eliminate on path decryption attacks? (Select two).
- A. Restricting cipher suites to only allow TLS_RSA_WITH_AES_128_CBC_SHA
- B. Removing support for CBC-based key exchange and signing algorithms
- C. Increasing the key length to 256 for TLS_RSA_WITH_AES_128_CBC_SHA
- D. Adding TLS_ECDHE_ECDSA_WITH_AE3_256_GCMS_HA256
- E. Implementing HIPS rules to identify and block BEAST attack attempts
- F. Disallowing cipher suites that use ephemeral modes of operation for key agreement
Answer: B,D
Explanation:
On-path decryption attacks, such as BEAST (Browser Exploit Against SSL/TLS) and other related vulnerabilities, often exploit weaknesses in the implementation of CBC (Cipher Block Chaining) mode. To mitigate these attacks, the following actions are recommended:
B: Removing support for CBC-based key exchange and signing algorithms: CBC mode is vulnerable to certain attacks like BEAST. By removing support for CBC-based ciphers, you can eliminate one of the primary vectors for these attacks. Instead, use modern cipher modes like GCM (Galois/Counter Mode) which offer better security properties.
C: Adding TLS_ECDHE_ECDSA_WITH_AES_256_GCM_SHA256: This cipher suite uses Elliptic Curve Diffie-Hellman Ephemeral (ECDHE) for key exchange, which provides perfect forward secrecy. It also uses AES in GCM mode, which is not susceptible to the same attacks as CBC. SHA-256 is a strong hash function that ensures data integrity.
NEW QUESTION # 191
A security architect is implementing more restrictive policies to improve secure coding practices.
Which of the following solutions are the best ways to improve the security coding practices?
(Choose two.)
- A. Perform regular vulnerability assessments on production software, defining tight SLAs for treatment.
- B. Define security gates and tests along the CI/CD flow with strict exception rules.
- C. Perform regular code reviews and implement pair programming methodology.
- D. Hire a third-party company to perform regular software tests, including quality and unity tests.
- E. Deliver regular training for the software developers based on best practices.
- F. Implement a SAST tool along the pipeline for every new commit.
Answer: E,F
NEW QUESTION # 192
A security engineer performed a code scan that resulted in many false positives. The security engineer must find a solution that improves the quality of scanning results before application deployment. Which of the following is the best solution?
- A. Performing updates on code libraries before code development
- B. Using an application vulnerability scanner to identify coding flaws in production
- C. Limiting the tool to a specific coding language and tuning the rule set
- D. Configuring branch protection rules and dependency checks
Answer: C
Explanation:
To improve the quality of code scanning results and reduce false positives, the best solution is to limit the tool to a specific coding language and fine-tune the rule set. By configuring the code scanning tool to focus on the specific language used in the application, the tool can more accurately identify relevant issues and reduce the number of false positives. Additionally, tuning the rule set ensures that the tool's checks are appropriate for the application's context, further improving the accuracy of the scan results.
References:
* CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide: Discusses best practices for configuring code scanning tools, including language-specific tuning and rule set adjustments.
* "Secure Coding: Principles and Practices" by Mark G. Graff and Kenneth R. van Wyk: Highlights the importance of customizing code analysis tools to reduce false positives.
* OWASP (Open Web Application Security Project): Provides guidelines for configuring and tuning code scanning tools to improve accuracy.
NEW QUESTION # 193
A network engineer must ensure that always-on VPN access is enabled Curt restricted to company assets Which of the following best describes what the engineer needs to do''
- A. Modify signing certificates in order to support IKE version 2
- B. Create a wildcard certificate for connections from public networks
- C. Generate device certificates using the specific template settings needed
- D. Add the VPN hostname as a SAN entry on the root certificate
Answer: C
Explanation:
To ensure always-on VPN access is enabled and restricted to company assets, the network engineer needs to generate device certificates using the specific template settings required for the company's VPN solution. These certificates ensure that only authorized devices can establish a VPN connection.
Why Device Certificates are Necessary:
Authentication: Device certificates authenticate company assets, ensuring that only authorized devices can access the VPN.
Security: Certificates provide a higher level of security compared to username and password combinations, reducing the risk of unauthorized access.
Compliance: Certificates help in meeting security policies and compliance requirements by ensuring that only managed devices can connect to the corporate network.
Other options do not provide the same level of control and security for always-on VPN access:
B . Modify signing certificates for IKE version 2: While important for VPN protocols, it does not address device-specific authentication.
C . Create a wildcard certificate: This is not suitable for device-specific authentication and could introduce security risks.
D . Add the VPN hostname as a SAN entry: This is more related to certificate management and does not ensure device-specific authentication.
Reference:
CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide
"Device Certificates for VPN Access," Cisco Documentation
NIST Special Publication 800-77, "Guide to IPsec VPNs"
NEW QUESTION # 194
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